Answers to the question of the integral of $\frac {1} {x}$ are all based on an implicit assumption that the upper and lower limits of the integral are both positive real numbers.

Feb 4, 2018 · The integral of 0 is C, because the derivative of C is zero. Also, it makes sense logically if you recall the fact that the derivative of the function is the function's slope, because any function f …

Feb 17, 2025 · The noun phrase "improper integral" written as $$ \int_a^\infty f (x) \, dx $$ is well defined. If the appropriate limit exists, we attach the property "convergent" to that expression and use …

Feb 4, 2014 · it seems obvious that this integral is zero and so is the limit but what theorem we are using here? I see it's connected to Riemann sums with an interval=zero Right ? The function $\\mathrm{f}$ is

Sep 27, 2013 · My HW asks me to integrate $\sin (x)$, $\cos (x)$, $\tan (x)$, but when I get to $\sec (x)$, I'm stuck.

If by integral you mean the cumulative distribution function $\Phi (x)$ mentioned in the comments by the OP, then your assertion is incorrect.

Nov 29, 2013 · Wolfram Mathworld says that an indefinite integral is "also called an antiderivative". This MIT page says, "The more common name for the antiderivative is the indefinite integral." One is free …

@user599310, I am going to attempt some pseudo math to show it: $$ I^2 = \int e^-x^2 dx \times \int e^-x^2 dx = Area \times Area = Area^2$$ We can replace one x, with a dummy variable, move the …

May 29, 2018 · I tried searching for how you derive the integral/primitive of $\arctan (x)$, but I can't find any question on S.E with an answer that clearly explains this. I feel that there should be one, since it …

Aug 9, 2017 · So, I can intuitively grasp that the derivative of the integral of a given function brings you back to that function. Is this also the case with the integral of the derivative?